One of the more controversial and popular discussions in biblical studies today is a debate about the Greek term
Ioudaios. Traditionally, the term has been translated as "Jew," elastically indicating identity in terms of religious practice and belief. Thus, to call someone a "Jew" in antiquity was a means for outsiders to categorize those individuals who adhered to circumcision, abstained from pork, and (repulsively) observed the Sabbath. The important thing to note is that, when employed in this manner, the term was religiously loaded. To be a "Jew" or I
oudaios, was to be one in a religious sense, much the same way as calling someone a Baptist or Mormon would carry specific connotations today.
Recently, scholars have followed the lead of Steve Mason in his work “Jews, Judaeans, Judaizing, Judaism: Problems of Categorization in Ancient History,”
Journal for the Study of Judaism 38 (2007) 457-512. Mason proposes a paradigm shift, arguing that
Ioudaios should be translated as "Judean," in congruence with ethnic identity. As far as I can tell, the crux of Mason's argument is that the ancients did not understand religion as we today understand religion. The lines were not as sharp, as religious affiliation intermingled with participation in associations, cultic practice, adherence to philosophical systems (often many at a time), and the use of magic/superstition. In this sense, it was nearly impossible to identify someone(s) on the basis of religious practice alone, and it was more appropriate to identify one based on their ethnic identity as it emerged in particular geographical regions.
I'll write more on this later. Right now I'm just working out the kinks and surveying the landscape. Here's something to think about, when Paul used the term, what was he referring to?